Goods and Crops

According to theory of mercantilism maintained by British colonialists before the American Revolution, colonies existed solely for the economic benefit of the mother country. Why would it be beneficial for Britain to permit the selling of colonial goods and crops in Britain only, and not in any other countries? Do you think restricting the sale of goods and crops was a win-win situation for Britain and the colonies? Explain.

Yes, I do believe it was a win-win situation because Britain got all the goods they wanted without having to share them, and for the colonies because if they got paid for them, and that they used British currency, and that there wasn’t a way to change money, that they actually got money they could use!